1 Which statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)
• The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
• The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
• The first 32 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
• The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
• The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

2 Which of the following parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
• packet size
• protocol suite
• source address
• destination address
• source router interface
• destination router interface

3 Choose the commands that will correctly configure a standard ACL. (Choose two.)
• Router(config)# access-list 97 permit host 192.5.5.1
• Router(config)# access-list 32 permit 210.93.105.3 0.0.0.0
• Router(config)# access-list 148 permit 201.100.11.2 0.0.0.0
• Router(config)# access-list 107 permit host 192.5.5.1 213.45.27.0 0.0.0.255 eq 23
• Router(config)# access-list 10 permit tcp 192.5.5.1 0.0.0.255 201.100.11.0 0.0.0.255 eq 80

4 Select the statements that describe ACL processing of packets. (Choose three.)
• An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.
• A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.
• A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement.
• A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwarded by default.
• Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.
• Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.

5 Which of the following are reasons to use ACLs? (Choose three.)
• to provide a basic level of security for network access
• to speed up network performance by filtering priority packets
• to preserve bandwidth by providing a mechanism for traffic flow control
• to decide which packets are forwarded or blocked at the router console port
• to screen certain hosts to either allow or deny access to part of a network
• to allow all packets passing through the router access to all parts of the network

6

Assuming the ACL in the graphic is correctly applied to an interface, what effect will the ACL have on network traffic?
• All traffic to network 172.16.0.0 will be denied.
• All TCP traffic will be permitted to and from network 172.16.0.0.
• All telnet traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network to any destination will be denied.
• All port 23 traffic to the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied.
• All traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied to any other network.

7 Choose the command that will correctly configure a standard ACL.
• Router# access-list 10 permit any
• Router# access-list 101 permit any
• Router(config)# access-list 10 permit any
• Router(config)# access-list 101 permit any
• Router(config)# access-list 10 permit any any

8

Select the commands that will apply the ACL in the diagram to filter traffic going to the 192.168.2.0 network.

• Router1# configure terminal
Router1(config)# access-list 10 in E0

• outer1(config)# interface ethernet 0
Router1(config-if)# access-list 10 in

• Router2(config)# interface s1
Router2(config-if)# ip access-group 10 out

• Router2(config)# interface ethernet 0
Router2(config-if)# ip access-group 10 out

• Router1(config)# interface ethernet 0
Router1(config-if)# ip access-group 10 out

• Router2# configure terminal
Router2(config)# access-group 10 out

9

Assuming the ACL in the graphic is correctly applied to an interface, what effect will this ACL have on network traffic?
• Host 192.168.15.4 will be denied ftp access to any destination, but will be permitted all other access.
• All ftp traffic to host 192.168.15.4 will be denied.
• All traffic from that interface will be denied.
• No traffic will be denied because a "permit" statement does not exist in this ACL.

10

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has connectivity to the routers and networks in the diagram. An ACL has been created to allow the network administrator FTP access to the webserver. This ACL must also deny FTP access to the server from the rest of the hosts on the LAN. Which interface in the exhibit is the recommended location to apply the ACL?
• FastEthernet 0/0 on the Carlisle router
• Serial 0/0 on the Carlisle router
• Serial 0/1 on the Mt. Holly router
• FastEthernet 0/0 on the Mt. Holly router

11 Select the correct statements about extended ACLs. (Choose two)
• Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99.
• Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement.
• Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
• Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
• Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction.

12 The following commands were entered on a router:

Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24
Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any

What can be concluded about this set of commands?
• The access list statements are misconfigured.
• All nodes on 172.16.0.0 will be denied access when these statements are applied.
• The default wildcard mask, 0.0.0.0 is assumed.
• The default wildcard mask 255.255.255.255 is assumed.

13 Where should a standard access control list be placed?
• close to the source
• close to the destination
• on an Ethernet port
• on a serial port

14 A router that has two Ethernet interfaces and one serial interface is configured to route both IP and IPX. What is the maximum number of IP ACLs that can be configured to filter packets on this router?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 6
• 12

15 Which statement is true regarding wildcard masks?
• The wildcard mask and subnet mask perform the same function.
• The wildcard mask is always the inverse of the subnet mask.
• A "0" in the wildcard mask identifies IP address bits that must be checked.
• A "1" in the wildcard mask identifies a network or subnet bit.

16 ACL statements operate in sequential, logical order. If a condition match is true, the rest of the ACL statements are not checked. If all of the ACL statements are unmatched, what happens to the packet?
• The packets will be placed in a buffer and forwarded when the ACL is removed.
• The packets will be sent to the source with an error notification message.
• The implicit permit any statement placed at the end of the list will allow the packets to flow through uninhibited.
• The implicit deny any statement placed at the end of the list will cause the packets to be dropped.

17 Which of the following matches an ACL identification number with the correct protocol?(Choose three.)
• 0 - standard IP
• 99 - standard IP
• 100 - extended IP
• 210 - extended IP
• 678 - extended IPX
• 888 - standard IPX

18 The router IOS tests each condition statement in an ACL in sequence. Once a match is made, which of the following occurs? (Choose two.)
• The entire ACL must be deleted and recreated.
• The accept or reject action is performed.
• The packet is forwarded to the next hop.
• The remaining ACL statements are not checked.
• The router goes through the list again to verify that a match has been made.

19

Create a standard ACL that will deny traffic from 192.5.5.25 to the 210.93.105.0 network but will allow traffic from all other hosts. (Choose two.)

• Router(config)# access-list 22 deny 192.5.5.25 0.0.0.0

• Router(config)# access-list 22 deny host 192.5.5.25 0.0.0.0
Router(config)# access-list 22 permit any any

• Router(config)# access-list 22 deny 192.5.5.25 0.0.0.0
Router(config)# access-list 22 permit any

• Router(config)# access-list 22 deny host 192.5.5.25
Router(config)# access-list 22 permit any

• Router(config)# access-list 22 deny 192.5.5.0 0.0.0.255
Router(config)# access-list 22 permit any

1 Which of the following describe how TCP adds reliability to communication? (Choose three.)
• Hosts using TCP set up virtual circuits at the beginning of the transmission using the three-way handshake.
• Hosts using TCP set the error-checking frequency at the beginning of the transmission and maintain this frequency for the duration of the data transfer.
• When a sending host does not receive an acknowledgment within a timed interval it retransmits data.
• The receiving host acknowledges that it has received the expected number of segments and requests additional data.
• The receiving host acknowledges any incorrectly received data and requests retransmission of damaged or missing bytes.
• The sending host transmits each segment twice to ensure that data is not lost.

2 A computer programmer is developing software that requires a reliable stream of data. Which protocol can be used in the software design to eliminate the need for building error detection and recovery into the application program?
• TCP
• IP
• ICMP
• UDP
• HTTP

3 Why is TCP considered a connection-oriented protocol?
• It establishes a virtual connection between hosts using a two-way handshake.
• It uses IP to guarantee delivery of packets between hosts.
• It requires hosts to go through a synchronization process prior to data transmission.
• It creates a connection that depends on application layer protocols for error detection.

4 At which point in the transmission process are segments numbered?
• when received
• when reassembling
• before transmission
• while negotiating window size

5 What is dynamically assigned by the source host when forwarding data?
• destination IP address
• destination port number
• default gateway address
• source IP address
• source port number

6 How are originating source port numbers assigned during the data encapsulation process?
• assigned manually by the user when starting the application
• assigned dynamically by the source host
• assigned by the routing protocol during the lookup process
• assigned by the destination host during session negotiation

7 Which of the following would an administrator do to defend against a denial of service SYN flooding attack? (Choose two.)
• Hide the source of incoming IP addresses.
• Decrease the connection timeout period.
• Synchronize all host communication.
• Increase the connection queue size.
• Flood the network with false SYN requests.

8 When a host receives a data segment, what allows the host to determine which application should receive the segment?
• IP source address
• IP destination address
• PAR
• sliding window
• port number
• SYN packet

9 What is used by UDP to determine if the data or header has been transferred without corruption?
• lower layer protocols
• checksum
• PAR
• sliding window
• acknowledgment and retransmission
• IP

10 What is the purpose of using port numbers in the transport layer?
• to identify the segment as being either TCP or UDP
• to provide reliability during data transport
• to identify the interface port number used by the router when forwarding data
• to track multiple conversations that occur between hosts

11 In the TCP header, which of the following determines the amount of data that can be sent before receiving an acknowledgment?
• segment number
• priority number
• window size
• value in the length field
• value in the port field
• acknowledgment number

12 What does TCP use to ensure reliable delivery of data segments?
• upper layer protocols
• lower layer protocols
• sequence numbers
• port numbers

13 Which of the following protocols uses UDP for transport layer services?
• SMTP
• HTTP
• DNS
• FTP

14 What type of segment and data is shown in the graphic?
• a UDP segment carrying e-mail traffic
• a TCP segment carrying FTP traffic
• an IP segment carrying FTP traffic
• a UDP segment carrying web traffic
• a TCP segment carrying web traffic
• an IP segment carrying e-mail traffic

15 What is the purpose of Positive Acknowledgment and Retransmission (PAR)?
• PAR allows the presentation layer to request that data be resent in a format the destination host can process.
• PAR provides a mechanism for the receiving device to request that all segments be retransmitted if one segment is corrupt.
• PAR helps ensure that a number of data segments sent by one host are received by another host before additional data segments are sent.
• PAR is used to renegotiate the window size during the synchronization process.

16 Which of the following are functions of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)
• translation of data
• synchronization
• path determination
• flow control
• data representation
• reliability

17 What is used by both TCP and UDP when creating a segment?
• IP address
• MAC address
• IPX address
• socket or port number
• acknowledgment number
• sequence number

18 Which authority has control over the assignment of port numbers for applications?
• IEEE
• IANA
• InterNIC
• Software Developers Association

19 Which of the following describe types of port numbers that can be represented in the headers of TCP and UDP segments? (Choose three.)
• connectionless
• well-known
• operational
• dynamic
• registered
• static

20 What is the purpose of the three-way handshake that occurs between hosts using TCP as the transport layer protocol?
• to increase the number of packets that can be sent before an acknowledgment is required
• to allow a host to forward data to a router
• to establish a round trip connection between sender and receiver before data is transferred
• to provide a mechanism for data encryption and compression

21 During the encapsulation process, in which order are the IP address, MAC address, and port number assigned when the router is establishing communication with the TFTP server?
• IP address, MAC address, port number
• MAC address, IP address, port number
• port number, IP address, MAC address
• port number, MAC address, IP address

22 Which of the following describes a type of denial of service attack designed to exploit the normal function of the TCP three-way handshake?
• A host sends a packet with a spoofed source IP address.
• A host sends a packet with an incorrect destination IP address.
• A source sends a packet containing a garbled header.
• A host sends an oversized packet that fills the memory buffers of the destination host.
• A host sends a packet that contains a virus.
• A host sends a packet that contains a worm.

23 Which transport layer unit of information places the port number in the header?
• data
• segment
• packet
• frame
• bit

1

After issuing the command traceroute 192.168.4.2 from Router A, the following information is returned

Tracing the route to Router_D (192.168.4.2)
1 Router_B (192.168.2.2) 16 msec 16 msec 16 msec
2 * * *
3 * * *

What can be concluded about the network shown in the graphic based on the output given?
• Network 192.168.5.0 is missing from the routing table on Router
• There is a problem with the connection between Router B and Router C.
• Router C is not running CDP.
• Some of the routers are non-Cisco devices.
• Router B was not able to return ICMP TEMs to Router A

2 Which of the following would be the default administrative distance of a static IP route that references the IP address of the next hop?
• 0
• 1
• 5
• 20

3 After issuing the show interfaces command, a technician notices the line "Serial1 is down, line protocol is down" in the output. Which of the following are possible reasons for this message output? (Choose three.)
• There is a mismatch in the encapsulation type on both ends of the link.
• A Layer 1 issue exists.
• An interface problem exists.
• The clockrate was not set during configuration.
• There is no usable media for the protocol.
• Keepalive messages are not being sent.

4 Which three correctly pair a routing metric with its description? (Choose three.)
• hop count - the number of routers traversed to reach a destination
• bandwidth - the amount of time it takes a packet to travel a link
• load - the amount of activity on a link
• delay - the link speed
• reliability - the error rate on a link

5

When issuing the show interfaces serial1 command, a network administrator receives the output shown in the graphic. What are the possible causes of an increase in the number of input errors? (Choose three.)
• There could be Layer 3 addressing problems.
• There could be a problem with faulty telephone equipment.
• The router hardware could be defective.
• There is an incorrectly configured encapsulation on the interface.
• There could be a problem with the cabling.

6 Which ICMP message type notifies source hosts that a receiving host or network is not available?
• time exceeded
• redirect
• destination unreachable
• source quench
• parameter problem
• echo reply

7 The show interfaces command provides line and protocol status information. Which of the following conditions would never occur in the output of this command?
• serial1 is up, line protocol is up
• serial1 is up, line protocol is down
• serial1 is down, line protocol is down
• serial1 is down, line protocol is up
• serial1 is administratively down, line protocol is down

8

The network administrator shown in the exhibit can ping the E0 interface of the HAR router, but the telnet intranet.xyz.com command issued from the administrator's workstation fails to open a session with the intranet.xyz.com server. What are two possible causes of this problem? (Choose two.)
• upper-layer application problems
• domain name system problems
• IP addressing problems on the HAR router
• clock rate problems on the HAR router serial interface
• ICMP connectivity problems

9 The network administrator is using a PC to access a router via the router console port. Both the PC and the router are powered on and a cable has been connected between them. However, a session cannot be established. Which steps might fix this problem? (Choose two.)
• Verify the cable is properly connected at each end.
• Reseat the network card in the PC.
• Verify the cable is the correct type.
• Verify that a password has been set on the console line.
• Check the transceiver for link lights.
• Reseat the console card on the router

10 Which command will display routing table information about all known networks and subnetworks?
• Router# show ip interfaces
• Router# show ip connections
• Router# show ip route
• Router# show ip networks

11 A network technician has discovered that a router in the network can no longer be reached. The technician attempts to verify Layer 1 functionality, but is unable to physically inspect the cables. Which command can be used to determine the type of cable connected to the router?
• Router# show interfaces
• Router# show controllers serial
• Router# show ip route
• Router# show ip protocol
• Router# show version
• Router# show running-config

12 During the lookup process when forwarding a packet, a router checks its routing table for the best path to the destination. If a route has an administrative distance of 0, what does this indicate to the router?
• The packet should be discarded.
• The destination is unreachable.
• The destination is a directly connected network.
• The source of the update for that route is unreliable.

13 Which command will verify the functionality of all seven layers of the OSI model on a network host?
• ping
• debug
• telnet
• traceroute

14

After issuing the show interfaces serial1 command, an administrator notices an increasing number of carrier transitions. What are the possible causes for this increase? (Choose two.)
•There is an incorrect encapsulation configured on the interface.
•There could be an interruption in the line by the service provider.
•There is a faulty switch or CSU/DSU.
•There is noise on the serial line.

15

Consider the RIP network shown in the diagram. Which entries would be listed in the routing table of Router A?
• R 192.168.5.2[120/1] via 192.168.15.0, 00:00:09, Serial0
• R 192.168.15.0[120/1] via 192.168.5.2, 00:00:13, Serial1
• R 192.168.15.0[120/1] via 192.168.5.1, 00:00:13, Serial0
• R 192.168.5.1 [120/1] via 192.168.5.2 00:00:29, Serial1
R 192.168.15.0 [120/1] via 192.168.5.2, 00:00:29, Serial1
• R 192.168.5.1 [120/1] via 192.168.5.2 00:00:18, Serial0
R 192.168.15.2 [120/1] via 192.168.5.2, 00:00:18, Serial

16 Which items would be displayed when the show ip protocols command is executed? (Choose three.)
• sources of routing updates
• networks being advertised
• routing protocol up or down
• configured routed protocols
• Layer 2 status of the interface
• update timer values

17 Which two are true regarding the debug commands? (Choose two.)
• Debug commands may be issued from the user EXEC prompt.
• The command undebug all will turn off all debug operations.
• By default, the router sends the debug output and messages to the telnet session.
• The high processor overhead incurred using debug may disrupt normal router operation.
• The debug all command provides a summary view of router activity and can be used frequently for troubleshooting.
• The show debugging command will display current events such as traffic on an interface and error messages generated by nodes on the network.

18 A network administrator suspects that a network is not being included in the routing updates. Which command will provide information on when the next update is due and which networks are advertised in the update?
• Router# show interfaces
• Router# show controllers serial
• Router# show ip protocols
• Router# show ip route
• Router# show running-config

19 Which of the following is a problem at the physical layer of the OSI model?
• incorrect file formatting
• incorrect encapsulation on a serial interface
• incorrect routing protocol
• incorrect cable type

20

When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be displayed in the output?
• D, SWH-2
• A, B, D
• SWH-1, SWH-2
• B, D
• SWH-1, A, B
• A, B, D, SWH-1, SWH-2

21 Which of the following are advantages of using a static route? (Choose three.)
• secure operation
• highly adaptable
• low maintenance configuration
• low processor overhead
• precise control of path selection

22 Which of the following commands can be used to statically configure default routes? (Choose two.)
• ip static-route
• ip route
• ip network-route
• ip default-network
• ip default-static

23 Why does a router build a routing table? (Choose two.)
• to list available routes for forwarding data
• to map local Layer 2 addresses to the remote Layer 3 destination address
• to dynamically send periodic updates regarding the router's status
• to prevent routing loops when redundant links are added to the network
• to select the best path to a destination

24 Which of the following lines from the show interfaces output would indicate a Layer 2 problem?
• Serial1 is up, line protocol is up.
• Serial1 is up, line protocol is down.
• Serial1 is down, line protocol is down.
• Serial1 is administratively down, line protocol is down.

1 How does a source host use ICMP to confirm that a destination host is reachable?
• The source host sends an ICMP echo request to the destination router which responds with an ICMP echo reply confirming the reachability of the destination host.
• The source host sends a data packet and receives an ICMP host unreachable packet from the destination host if the data packet cannot be delivered.
• The source host sends an ICMP packet with a TTL value of 1 and receives an ICMP reply with a TTL value of 0 from the destination host.
• The source host sends an ICMP echo request and receives an ICMP echo reply from the destination host.

2 Which type of message is generated by a host when the ping command is entered?
• ICMP echo request
• ICMP echo reply
• UDP echo request
• UDP error message

3 Which of the following start the test of destination reachability?
• echo request issued by source
• echo reply issued by source
• echo request issued by destination
• echo reply issued by destination

4 Which two statements are true regarding ICMP? (Choose two.)
• ICMP provides reliability for the TCP/IP protocol stack.
• ICMP is a component of the TCP/IP protocol stack.
• ICMP notifies the sender that data transmission errors have occurred.
• ICMP is connection-oriented.
• ICMP messages are propagated to all intermediate devices.

5 How does ICMP improve data transfer reliability in IP networks?
• Each router in the path reads ICMP packets and uses the information to update routing tables.
• ICMP can correct many network problems as they occur.
• ICMP error messages are returned to the sending device when a packet is dropped by a router.
• ICMP packets report the intermediary devices that a packet passed through before failure occurred.

6 Which layer protocols provide reliability for IP when needed?
• ICMP and ping
• RIP and TTL
• upper layer protocols
• lower layer protocols
• Internet layer protocols
• network access layer protocols

7 Which devices along a data transmission path are notified by ICMP when delivery failures occur?
• source devices only
• destination devices only
• intermediary devices
• source and destination devices
• source, intermediary, and destination devices

8 When a datagram is processed by a router on the path from source to destination, what happens to the value in the TTL field?"
• It is increased by one.
• It is decreased by one.
• It stays the same.
• It is reset to 0.
• Nothing.

9 Which condition could cause a fragmentation needed ICMP destination unreachable message to be sent?
• A low bandwidth WAN link has become congested with IP traffic.
• A packet is forwarded from a Token Ring network to an Ethernet network.
• A network is not reachable because of faulty routing information.
• The address specified by the sending host is nonexistent.

10

Workstation 1 sent a data packet to Workstation 4. It never arrived because Fa0/0 interface went down on Router C. How will the devices handle this failure?
• Workstation 4 will send an error message to Router C and Workstation 1 that it did not receive the packet.
• Router C will use ICMP to send a message back to Workstation 1 indicating that the packet could not be delivered.
• Router C discards the packet without providing notification to any device.
• Router C uses ICMP to correct the failure and transmits the data to Workstation 4.
• Workstation 1 will use ICMP to correct the problem and then notify Router C to continue the transmission.

11 Which three conditions must be met in order for host to host communication over an internetwork to occur on IP networks? (Choose three.)
• The routing protocols configured on the source and destination networks must be the same.
• A default gateway must be properly configured on the hosts and local networks.
• Intermediary devices, such as routers, must be present on the network and have knowledge of how to reach the destination network.
• The source and destination host subnet masks must match.
• The IP addresses of the hosts must be in the same network or subnet as their respective gateway devices.

1 Which command or set of commands will stop the RIP routing process?
• RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# shutdown
• RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network no 192.168.2.0
• RouterB(config)# no router rip
• RouterB(config)# router no rip

2 When does a distance vector routing protocol set a hold-down timer on a route?
• when the metric value of the route decreases
• when the route is marked as inaccessible
• when the metric value for the route improves
• when a regular update is received from a neighboring router

3 Which of the following functions are performed by a router as routing information travels through the network? (Choose two.)
• advertise supported applications
• identify new destinations
• calculate packet speed
• verify network scalability
• identify invalid networks

4 What do distance vector algorithms require each router in the network to send?
• a partial routing table to each router in the LAN
• a partial routing table to each router in the WAN
• the entire routing table to each neighboring router
• the entire routing table to each router in the autonomous system

5

What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0? (Choose two.)
• RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA.
• During the next update interval, RouterB will send a RIP update out both ports that includes the inaccessible network.
• During the next update interval, RouterC will send an update to RouterB stating that network 114.125.16.0 is accessible in 2 hops.
• Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB.
• RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterC.

6

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming default settings are configured, which routing protocol has been configured on the router?
• OSPF
• RIP
• EIGRP
• BGP
• Static

7 Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?
• debug ip rip
• show ip route
• show ip interface
• show ip protocols
• debug ip rip config
• show ip rip database

8 Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing information?
• Routing updates are split in half to reduce the update time.
• Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.
• New route information must be learned from multiple sources to be accepted.
• The time between updates is split in half to speed convergence.
• New route information is suppressed until the system has converged.

9

According to the router output from the show ip route command shown above, which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
• The metric to network 192.168.8.0 is 24.
• The hop count to a device on network 192.168.8.0 is 2.
• The total path cost to network 192.168.4.0 is the default value of 16.
• The logical address of the next router for network 192.168.1.0 is 192.168.3.1.
• The devices on network 192.168.5.0 cannot be reached as indicated by the 'C' label.

10 How would an administrator configure a static route for use if a primary route failed?
• configure the route with a metric greater than the default value
• configure the route and the router will activate it as needed
• configure the route to activate by using the redistribute static command
• configure the route with an administrative distance greater than the default value

11 Which statements describe RIP? (Choose three.)
• The maximum metric value is 255 hops.
• The maximum metric value is 15 hops.
• Routing updates occur every 30 seconds.
• Routing updates occur every 90 seconds.
• It is a distance vector routing protocol.
• It is a link state routing protocol.

12 A router has routes to several subnets of a classful network in its routing table. A default route is defined on the router but the ip classless command is disabled. If the router receives packets for a subnet that is not in its routing table but is in the same classful network as the other subnets, what will happen to the packets?
• The packets will be forwarded using the default route.
• The packets will be forwarded using a route to one of the other subnets of the classful network.
• A nonreachable message will be returned to the source.
• The packets will be discarded.
• The router will generate a new route to the subnetted network.

13

The administrator of the network depicted in the graphic would like to decrease the network's convergence time. How can this be accomplished?
• disable split horizon on the routers
• increase the update interval on the routers
• change the RIP holddown timer to 96 seconds
• change the RIP holddown timer to 226 seconds

14

If the passive interface command is enabled on the fa0/0 interface of Router E, which statements are true? (Choose two.)
• Router E will send all routing updates via interface fa0/0.
• Router E will ignore all routing updates learned via interface fa0/0.
• Router E will use routing updates learned via interface fa0/0.
• Router E will not send routing updates via interface fa0/0.

15 Which statements describe load balancing when RIP is configured as the routing protocol? (Choose two.)
• A router is allowed to take advantage of multiple best paths to a given destination.
• RIP uses the round robin approach in load balancing.
• RIP load balancing selects a single path to forward all data to the destination even though equal parallel paths exist.
• RIP load balancing is based on bandwidth first and then the hop count.
• Only one path to a destination can be statically assigned or dynamically calculated.

16

The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link with a hop count metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?
• split horizon
• error condition
• hold-down timer
• route poisoning
• count to infinity

17

Which of the following would be the correct command sequence to enable RIP on Router B for all connected networks?
• RouterB# router rip
RouterB(router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(router)# network 220.17.29.0
RouterB(router)# network 211.168.74.0

• RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 211.168.74.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 199.84.32.0

• RouterB(config)# configure router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 199.84.32.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 211.168.74.0

• RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 211.168.74.0

• RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 220.17.29.0

18 When a routing table update is received by a router in a distance vector network, which of the following occurs?
• The hop count metrics for the enclosed routes are incremented.
• The update is forwarded to the gateway router for verification.
• Path entries are checked for routing loops.
• The hop count metrics for the enclosed routes are decremented.
• Static routes are updated with the new information.

19 The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command:
192.168.3.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0
What is the administrative distance of the enabled routing protocol?
• 2
• 30
• 100
• 120

20 When does RIP send routing table updates? (Choose two.)
• periodically, every 30 seconds
• periodically, every 60 seconds
• periodically, every 90 seconds
• if optionally configured, when topology changes occur (triggered-update)

21 Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged? (Choose three.)
• routing loops
• inconsistent traffic forwarding
• no traffic forwarding until system converges
• inconsistent routing table entries
• routing table updates sent to wrong destinations

22 What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
• The route is removed from the table.
• The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.
• The route remains in the table because it was defined as static.
• The router redirects the static route to compensate for the loss of the next hop device.

1 Which command or set of commands will stop the RIP routing process?
• RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# shutdown
• RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network no 192.168.2.0
• RouterB(config)# no router rip
• RouterB(config)# router no rip

2 When does a distance vector routing protocol set a hold-down timer on a route?
• when the metric value of the route decreases
• when the route is marked as inaccessible
• when the metric value for the route improves
• when a regular update is received from a neighboring router

3 Which of the following functions are performed by a router as routing information travels through the network? (Choose two.)
• advertise supported applications
• identify new destinations
• calculate packet speed
• verify network scalability
• identify invalid networks

4 What do distance vector algorithms require each router in the network to send?
• a partial routing table to each router in the LAN
• a partial routing table to each router in the WAN
• the entire routing table to each neighboring router
• the entire routing table to each router in the autonomous system

5

What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0? (Choose two.)
• RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA.
• During the next update interval, RouterB will send a RIP update out both ports that includes the inaccessible network.
• During the next update interval, RouterC will send an update to RouterB stating that network 114.125.16.0 is accessible in 2 hops.
• Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB.
• RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterC.

6

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming default settings are configured, which routing protocol has been configured on the router?
• OSPF
• RIP
• EIGRP
• BGP
• Static

7 Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?
• debug ip rip
• show ip route
• show ip interface
• show ip protocols
• debug ip rip config
• show ip rip database

8 Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing information?
• Routing updates are split in half to reduce the update time.
• Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.
• New route information must be learned from multiple sources to be accepted.
• The time between updates is split in half to speed convergence.
• New route information is suppressed until the system has converged.

9

According to the router output from the show ip route command shown above, which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
• The metric to network 192.168.8.0 is 24.
• The hop count to a device on network 192.168.8.0 is 2.
• The total path cost to network 192.168.4.0 is the default value of 16.
• The logical address of the next router for network 192.168.1.0 is 192.168.3.1.
• The devices on network 192.168.5.0 cannot be reached as indicated by the 'C' label.

10 How would an administrator configure a static route for use if a primary route failed?
• configure the route with a metric greater than the default value
• configure the route and the router will activate it as needed
• configure the route to activate by using the redistribute static command
• configure the route with an administrative distance greater than the default value

11 Which statements describe RIP? (Choose three.)
• The maximum metric value is 255 hops.
• The maximum metric value is 15 hops.
• Routing updates occur every 30 seconds.
• Routing updates occur every 90 seconds.
• It is a distance vector routing protocol.
• It is a link state routing protocol.

12 A router has routes to several subnets of a classful network in its routing table. A default route is defined on the router but the ip classless command is disabled. If the router receives packets for a subnet that is not in its routing table but is in the same classful network as the other subnets, what will happen to the packets?
• The packets will be forwarded using the default route.
• The packets will be forwarded using a route to one of the other subnets of the classful network.
• A nonreachable message will be returned to the source.
• The packets will be discarded.
• The router will generate a new route to the subnetted network.

13

The administrator of the network depicted in the graphic would like to decrease the network's convergence time. How can this be accomplished?
• disable split horizon on the routers
• increase the update interval on the routers
• change the RIP holddown timer to 96 seconds
• change the RIP holddown timer to 226 seconds

14

If the passive interface command is enabled on the fa0/0 interface of Router E, which statements are true? (Choose two.)
• Router E will send all routing updates via interface fa0/0.
• Router E will ignore all routing updates learned via interface fa0/0.
• Router E will use routing updates learned via interface fa0/0.
• Router E will not send routing updates via interface fa0/0.

15 Which statements describe load balancing when RIP is configured as the routing protocol? (Choose two.)
• A router is allowed to take advantage of multiple best paths to a given destination.
• RIP uses the round robin approach in load balancing.
• RIP load balancing selects a single path to forward all data to the destination even though equal parallel paths exist.
• RIP load balancing is based on bandwidth first and then the hop count.
• Only one path to a destination can be statically assigned or dynamically calculated.

16

The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link with a hop count metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?
• split horizon
• error condition
• hold-down timer
• route poisoning
• count to infinity

17

Which of the following would be the correct command sequence to enable RIP on Router B for all connected networks?
• RouterB# router rip
RouterB(router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(router)# network 220.17.29.0
RouterB(router)# network 211.168.74.0

• RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 211.168.74.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 199.84.32.0

• RouterB(config)# configure router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 199.84.32.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 211.168.74.0

• RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 211.168.74.0

• RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 220.17.29.0

18 When a routing table update is received by a router in a distance vector network, which of the following occurs?
• The hop count metrics for the enclosed routes are incremented.
• The update is forwarded to the gateway router for verification.
• Path entries are checked for routing loops.
• The hop count metrics for the enclosed routes are decremented.
• Static routes are updated with the new information.

19 The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command:
192.168.3.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0
What is the administrative distance of the enabled routing protocol?
• 2
• 30
• 100
• 120

20 When does RIP send routing table updates? (Choose two.)
• periodically, every 30 seconds
• periodically, every 60 seconds
• periodically, every 90 seconds
• if optionally configured, when topology changes occur (triggered-update)

21 Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged? (Choose three.)
• routing loops
• inconsistent traffic forwarding
• no traffic forwarding until system converges
• inconsistent routing table entries
• routing table updates sent to wrong destinations

22 What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
• The route is removed from the table.
• The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.
• The route remains in the table because it was defined as static.
• The router redirects the static route to compensate for the loss of the next hop device.

1 What can be concluded about the routing process on a router if the commands router rip and network 192.5.5.0 have been issued? (Choose three.)
• A distance vector routing protocol was used.
• A link-state routing protocol was used.
• Routing updates will broadcast every 30 seconds.
• Routing updates will broadcast every 90 seconds.
• Hop count is the metric used for route selection.
• Bandwidth, load, delay, and reliability are the metrics used for route selection.

2 Which two protocols use an addressing scheme to direct user traffic? (Choose two.)
• IP
• EIGRP
• IPX
• OSPF
• RIP

3 What are some of the advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
• The topology database eliminates the need for a routing table.
• Frequent periodic updates are sent to minimize the number of incorrect routes in the topological database.
• Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.
• After the inital LSA flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.
• Link-state protocols require less router processor power than distance vector protocols.

4 If dynamic routing is not configured on a router, how do routing table updates occur?
• Link state advertisements are sent from other routers.
• Updates are made to the routing table by the administrator.
• Best path information is communicated by network hosts.
• The routing table is updated by neighboring routers.

5 Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
• Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.
• Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.
• Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.
• Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged.

6 What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
• It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.
• It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.
• It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.
• It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
• It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding.

7 Which are the primary functions used by a router when forwarding data?(Choose two.)
• data encryption
• error notification
• packet switching
• address identification
• path determination
• packet validation

8 How does a router learn about routes to a network? (Choose three.)
• Information is gathered from its own configuration regarding directly connected networks.
• Switches forward destination address information to each router.
• Hosts communicate destination network information to each router.
• Other routers forward information about known networks.
• Routes are entered manually by a network administrator.
• Routes are learned from information gathered from ARP tables.

9 Which type of address does a router use to make routing decisions?
• source IP address
• source MAC address
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address

10 Describe the switching function that occurs in a router.
• allows the router to make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addressing
• uses network addressing to select the best route and interface to forward data
• accepts a packet on one interface and forwards it to a second interface
• enables the router to select the most appropriate interface for forwarding a packet

11 Select the statements that describe link-state routing processes? (Choose three.)
• Each router develops its own map of the entire network.
• Routers send triggered updates when changes in the network occur.
• Link-state routing protocols place a higher load on router resources during the routing protocol initialization.
• Link-state protocols are more prone to routing loops than distance vector routing protocols.
• Networks using link-state routing protocols are slower to reach convergence after changes have occurred than those using distance vector protocols.

12 Why is it necessary to specify a list of networks when configuring an interior routing protocol?
• to tell the router how to reach those networks
• to tell the router which attached networks participate in routing updates
• to tell the router which set of metrics to use for the attached networks
• to tell the router which routing protocol to use

13

Assuming that the network shown in the graphic is converged and dynamic routing is enabled, which of the following conditions will cause a modification to the Orlando routing table? (Choose two.)
• The device connecting the S0 interface of the Tampa router to the serial link loses power.
• A network administrator shuts down the Orlando router E0 interface.
• A DCHP server connected to the Tampa E1 network loses power.
• The IP address of a workstation on the Orlando E0 network is reassigned.
• A host on the Orlando E1 network transmits data to a server on the Tampa E1 network.
• A Telnet connection to the Orlando router fails.

14 All routers at a medium sized company have been upgraded. During the upgrade, the network administrator determined that a more advanced routing protocol using a combination of both distance vector and link state features should be implemented. Which protocol should be selected?
• RIP
• BGP
• OSPF
• EIGRP

15 Which category of routing algorithms discovers and maintains a topological map of the entire internetwork?
• static
• Bellman-Ford
• exterior gateway
• Internetwork Packet Exchange
• distance vector
• link-state

16 Which is an exterior routing protocol commonly used between ISPs?
• RIP
• BGP
• OSPF
• EIGRP

17 Which of the following statements are true regarding the command ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.1? (Choose three.)
• This command is used to set up a static route.
• This command is used to set up a default route.
• This command is entered from global configuration mode.
• All packets intended for network 172.16.1.0 will be sent to gateway 172.16.2.1.
• All packets intended for network 172.16.2.1 will be sent to gateway 172.16.1.0.

18

Referring to the diagram, which commands will enable hosts on the Idaho E0 network to reach hosts on the E0 network of the Montana router? (Choose two.)
• Montana(config)# ip route 172.31.5.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.5.1
• Montana(config)# ip route 172.31.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.1
• Idaho(config)# ip route 172.31.5.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.1
• Idaho(config)# ip route 172.31.5.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.2
• Idaho(config)# ip route 172.31.5.1 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.1

19

Which of the following are valid static IP routes? (Choose three.)
• RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.0 S1
• RouterC(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 S1
• RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.2
• RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.2
• RouterC(config)# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.4.1
• RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.1

20 Given the command, RouterC(config)# ip route 197.5.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.10.1.1, what does the address 192.10.1.1 represent?
• the source host
• the next hop router
• the outbound interface
• the destination network

21 Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged?
• The routers in the network are operating with dynamic routing protocols.
• The routers in the network are operating with compatible versions of IOS.
• The routers in the network are operating with the same routing tables.
• The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.

22 Which two statements describe autonomous systems? (Choose two.)
• Interior gateway protocols are used between autonomous systems.
• Exterior gateway protocols are used between autonomous systems.
• An autonomous system may be under the control of multiple organizations.
• An autonomous system is identified by a 16 bit number assigned by ARIN.
• The autonomous system is identified in the network portion of the IP address.